Dear friends and readers from everywhere, thank you for following up every day with our stories. We greatly appreciate you our folks from the US, Canada, the UK, Belgium, Netherlands, Austria, South Africa, India, Brazil, Germany, Croatia, Australia, Sweden, France, New Zealand, Philippines, Russia, China, Spain, Italy, Sudan, n Japan 😉
My dear smart and brilliant friends, few days ago, I was having a ride to my residency, when I heard that astonishing news over the radio, given by KQED, which is one of the best radio stations in the country.
It says that South Korea and Japan reached to an agreement, giving a huge sum of money as a compensation for women in Korea, covering the agonies they had to go through during war time, and losing their lives as a price for that vicious situation.
This link will give you the whole story to follow its details for more insights:
Now here comes our questions:
If this the same situation happened in India, when the British occupied them, would the British Gov compensate women there?
Not necessarily India, coz Britain occupied many other countries and caused damages for huge number of families, and collected unjustified gains from these countries. Would they reach a deal with every country they sucked their fortunes?
If this happened, it would seem that some fairness would go through after all. What do you think my Zumba Friend? It all depends on the “Budget”, huh 😮
If Britain did that, she would be the leader in compensating those poor long-occupied countries, and other invading countries will follow, her steps. But our next question will be: how far back would these compensations go?
May be to the 15th century, or may be before the US occupation, I’m not sure which back dating, it should go to. My 1Zumba friend, I need help here from the professors of History, or may be not history at large, within the history of the war zone or the war periods, right? No hard feelings! Just chatting!
Okay, fine, let’s focus then on our 1Zumba Zone 😉
1Zumba.Com 